1Select the correct definition for "ESTIMATED TIME OF ARRIVAL" in respect to IFR flights:
AThe time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over that designated point defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended, that an instrument approach will be commenced
BThe time at which the aircraft will actually arrive over that designated point defined by reference to navigation aids, from which it is intended, that a visual approach will be commenced
CThe time at which it is estimated that the aircraft will arrive over that designated point defined by reference to visual aids, from which it is intended, that an approach will be commenced
DIn any case that time at which the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome
2What does the term "AERONAUTICAL STATION" mean?
AA land station in the aeronautical mobile service. In certain instances, an aeronautical station may be located, for example, on board ship or on a platform at sea
BA station forming part of the aeronautical telecommunication network
CA station in the aeronautical telecommunication service located on land or on board of an aircraft to exchange radiotelephony communications
DAny station established to exchange radiotelephony communications
3What does the term "BLIND TRANSMISSION" mean?
AA Transmission of a message to the air traffic service in cases where radio contact cannot be established
BA transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station or stations
CA transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station
DA transmission of messages relating to enroute weather information which may affect the safety of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations
4What does the term "GENERAL CALL" mean?
AStations in the aeronautical mobile service may simultaneously call all stations maintaining listening watch on a frequency
BA radiotelephony communication from a ground station to aircraft in flight
CA transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations
DA transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station
5What does the term "AIR-GROUND COMMUNICATION" mean?
ATwo-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the surface of the earth
BOne-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth
CAny communication from aircraft to ground stations requiring handling by the Aeronautical Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)
DOne-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth
6What does the term "EXPECTED APPROACH TIME" mean?
AThe time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing
BThe time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing
CThe holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a landing will be initiated
DThe time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome
7What does the term "VISUAL APPROACH" mean?
AAn approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain
BAn approach executed by a VFR flight unable to maintain VMC
CAn extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for landing on a runway which is not suitable located for straight-in approach
DA visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the aerodrome of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima
8What does the term "CLEARANCE LIMIT" mean?
AThe point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance
BThe time of expiry of an air traffic control clearance
CThe time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not been commenced
DThe time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearance
9What does the term "AUTOMATIC TERMINAL INFORMATION SERVICE" mean?
AThe automatic provision of current, routine information to arriving and departing aircraft throughout 24 hours or a specified portion thereof
BA service established to provide information concerning enroute weather phenomena which may effect the safety of aircraft operation
CA service which provides aircraft with weather reports relating to a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight information region (FIR)
DA service by which aircraft operating within a flight information region (FIR) are provided with current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of air navigation
10What does the term "WAYPOINT" mean?
AA specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation
BA defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation system
CA general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system of an international airport
DA signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use
11What does the abbreviation "INS" mean?
AInertial navigation system
BInternational NOTAM service
CInternational navigation service
DInstrument navigation system
12What does the abbreviation "TCAS" mean?
ATraffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System
BTower Cabin Alarm Stop
CTrack Confirmation by Automatic Sources
DTerminal Control and Advisory System
13What does the abbreviation "SELCAL" mean?
ASelective Calling System
BSimple approach lighting System
CA system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in both directions simultaneously
DA system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS) units
14What does the abbreviation "SSR" mean?
ASecondary Surveillance Radar
BSearch and Surveillance Radar
CSurface Strength of Runway
DStandard Snow Report
15What does the abbreviation "RNAV" mean?
AArea navigation
BRoute navigation
CRadio navigation
DRadar aided navigation
16What does the abbreviation "RVR" mean?
ARunway Visual Range
BRunway Visibility Report
CRecleared Via Route ….
DRadar Vectors Requested
17What does the abbreviation "HJ" mean?
ASunrise to sunset
BNo specific working hours
CContinuous day and night service
DSunset to sunrise
18QFE is the radiotelephony Q-code to indicate:
AThe atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold)
BThe atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome
CThe altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground
DThe atmospheric pressure referred to a point on the surface of the Earth
19QNH is the radiotelephony Q-code to indicate:
AThe altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain aerodrome elevation when on the ground
BThe atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold)
CThe atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP)
DThe atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an aerodrome
20If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code setting would you refer?
21If you are requested to report your altitude, to which Q-code setting would you refer?
22What does QDM mean?
AMagnetic heading (zero wind)
BTrue heading to the station (zero wind)
CTrue bearing from the station
DMagnetic bearing
23What is the Q-code for "MAGNETIC HEADING (ZERO WIND)"?
24What does QTE mean?
ATrue bearing from the station
BMagnetic bearing from the station
CTrue heading to the station (no wind)
DMagnetic heading to the station
25What is the Q-code for "TRUE BEARING FROM THE STATION"?
26What does QDR mean?
AMagnetic bearing
BMagnetic heading (zero wind)
CTrue heading to the station
DTrue bearing from the station
27What is the Q-code for "MAGNETIC BEARING"?
28The message to a ground station on a landing site "PLEASE CALL A TAXI CAB FOR US, WE WILL ARRIVE AT 1045" is …
Aan Unauthorized Message in the aeronautical mobile service
Ba Flight Regularity Message
Can Urgency Message
Da Flight Safety Message
29Messages concerning non-routine landings of an aircraft are:
AFlight Regularity Messages
BFlight Safety Messages
CUnauthorized Messages in the aeronautical mobile service
DUrgency Messages
30A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is ...
Aa Flight Regularity Messages
Ban Urgency Message
Ca Flight Security Message
Da Flight Safety Message
31Flight Safety Messages are ...
Aair traffic control messages
Bmessages concerning non-routine landings
Cmessages relating to direction finding
Dmessages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a vessel, any other vehicle or a person
32A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger, requiring immediate assistance is called:
ADistress Message
BFlight Safety Message
CUrgency Message
DClass B Message
33Which of the messages listed below shall be handled by the aeronautical mobile service?
AMessages Relating to Direction Finding
BAeronautical Security Messages
CAeronautical Administrative Messages
DMessages of Airline Operators
34Which of the messages listed below shall not be handled by the aeronautical mobile service?
ARadio Teletype Messages
BUrgency Messages
CFlight Safety Messages
DMeteorological Messages
35The priority of the instruction "TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 05 VIA A" is ...
Asame as "LINE UP RUNWAY 07 AND WAIT"
Bhigher than "TRANSMIT FOR QDM"
Clower than "CLEARED TO LAND"
Dhigher than "CAUTION CONSTRUCTION WORK LEFT OF TAXIWAY G"
36The message addressed to an Area Control Centre "REQUEST RADAR VECTORS TO CIRCUMNAVIGATE ADVERSE WEATHER" is ...
Aa Flight Safety Message
Ba Meteorological Message
Ca Message Relating to Direction Finding
Dan Urgency Message
37Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions etc.) belong to the category of …
AFlight Safety Messages
BClass B Messages
CService Message
DFlight Regularity Message
38The clearance "RUNWAY 03, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF" is…
Aa Flight Safety Message
Ban Urgency Message
Can Unauthorized Message in the aeronautical mobile service
DFlight Regularity Messages
39The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is ...
ADistress Message, Urgency Message, Message Relating to Direction Finding
BMessage Relating to Direction Finding, Distress Message, Urgency Message
CDistress message, Flight Safety Message, Urgency Message
DMeteorological message, Message Relating to Direction Finding, Flight Regularity Message
40The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service is…
AFlight Safety Message, Meteorological Message, Flight Regularity Message
BMeteorological Message, Message Relating to Direction Finding, Flight Safety Message
CFlight Safety Message, Message Relating to Direction Finding, Urgency Message
DFlight Regularity Message, Distress Message, Meteorological Message
41The priority of a pilot‘s message "REQUEST QDM" is ...
Ahigher than "TURN LEFT HEADING …"
Bsame as "LATEST QNH 1018"
Clower than "DECEND FLIGHT LEVEL …"
Dlower than "REQUEST CLIMB FLIGHT LEVEL …"
42What is the correct way of spelling HBJYC?
AHotel Bravo Juliett Yankee Charlie
BHotel Bravo Juliett India Kilo
CHotel Bravo India Yankee Charlie
DHotel Bravo India Victor Charlie
43What is the correct way of spelling FRl-VOR?
AFoxtrot Romeo India - VOR
BFoxtrot Romeo Juliett - VOR
CFox Romeo Yankee - VOR
DFox Romeo India - VOR
44What is the correct way of transmitting the altitude of 3500 ft?
AThree thousand five hundred feet
BThree five zero zero feet
CThree five double "O" feet
DThree five hundred feet
45What is the correct way of transmitting a QNH of 1001?
AQNH one zero zero one
BQNH one double zero one
CQNH one thousand and one
DQNH one double "O" one
46What is the correct way of transmitting VHF frequency 118.010 MHz?
AOne one eight decimal zero one zero
BOne eighteen decimal zero one
COne one eight point zero one zero
DOne one eight decimal zero one
47What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13 500?
AOne three thousand five hundred
BOne three five zero zero
CThirteen thousand five hundred
DOne three five hundred
48When transmitting time, which time system shall be used?
ACoordinated Universal Time (UTC)
BLocal time (LT) 24-hour clock
CNo specific system, as only the minutes are normally required
DLocal time (LT) a.m. and p.m.
49The time is 4:15 pm. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is a possibility of confusion?
AOne six one five
BFour fifteen p.m.
CFour fifteen in the afternoon
DSixteen fifteen
50The time is 9:20 am. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is no possibility of confusion (same hour)?
ATwo zero
BTwo zero this hour
CNine twenty a.m.
DTwenty
51An ATC unit providing air traffic control service to departing aircraft by means of surveillance radar has the call sign:
ADEPARTURE
BCONTROL
CAPPROACH
DDELIVERY
52An ATC unit providing air traffic control service to enroute aircraft by means of surveillance radar has the call sign:
ARADAR
BCONTROL
CDELIVERY
DMONITOR
53What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating aerodrome control?
ATOWER
BCONTROL
CAPRON
DAERODROME
54What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating flight information service?
AINFORMATION
BFLIGHT INFORMATION CENTRE
CRADIO
DFLIGHT CENTRE
55What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface movement control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area?
AGROUND
BTOWER
CCONTROL
DAPPROACH
56What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing approach control service (no radar service)?
AAPPROACH
BCONTROL
CARRIVAL
DRADAR
57What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating an area control centre (no radar)?
ACONTROL
BRADAR
CCENTRE
DAPPROACH
58What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar departures?
ADEPARTURE
BCONTROL
CRADAR
DAPPROACH
59What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating approach control radar arrivals?
AARRIVAL
BRADAR
CDIRECTOR
DAPPROACH
60Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XYABC is correct?
61Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XYABC is correct?
ACherokee BC or Cherokee ABC
BCherokee XYBC
CCherokee XBC
DCherokee XABC
62When shall an aircraft station use its abbreviated call sign?
AIf it has already been used by the aeronautical station
BOnly after satisfactory communication has been established
CProvided no confusion is likely to result
DIn dense traffic
63What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off mass of 136 tons or more?
AFastair 345 heavy
BFastair 345 widebody
CHeavy Fastair 345
DFastair 345
64When shall an aircraft in the wake turbulence category HEAVY include the word "HEAVY" immediately after the call sign?
AWhen establishing radio contact with ATC and after every frequency change
BNever
CIn all calls to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit
DIn the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit
65When and by whom is the change of call signs of aircraft stations during flight allowed?
AOn the instruction of an ATC unit in the interests of safety
BTo facilitate subsequent radiotelephony communications by an aeronautical station
CWhen changing the destination airport during flight by the aircraft operator
DIn case of diversion to the alternate aerodrome by the pilot-in-command
66When may the name of the call sign of an aeronautical station or location name be omitted?
AAfter the establishment of voice communication
BNever
CIn dense traffic during the rush hours
DOnly after the aeronautical station has used the abbreviated call sign
67The phrase "CANCEL" means:
AAnnul the previously transmitted clearance
BConsider that transmission as not sent
CA new flight plan has to be filed
DExpect a new clearance shortly
68The phrase "ACKNOWLEDGE" means:
ALet me know that you have received and understood this message
BI have received all of your last transmission
CRepeat all or the following part of your last transmission
DMy transmission is ended and I expect a response from you
69The phrase "ROGER" means:
AI have received all of your last transmission
BA direct answer in the affirmative
CCleared for take-off or cleared to land
DA direct answer in the negative
70The phrase "STANDBY" means:
AWait and I will call you
BContinue on present heading and listen out
CPermission granted for action proposed
DSelect STANDBY on the SSR transponder
71The phrase "READ BACK" means:
ARepeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received
BLet me know that you have received and understood this message
CCheck and confirm with originator
DDid you correctly receive this message?
72The phrase "CHECK" means:
AExamine a system or procedure
BRepeat your last transmission
CConsider that transmission as not sent
DDid you correctly receive this message?
73Which phrase shall be used for "I SHOULD LIKE TO KNOW…" or "I WISH TO OBTAIN…"?
AREQUEST
BACKNOWLEDGE
CCONFIRM
DREPORT
74Which phrase shall be used for "Pass me the following information …"
AREPORT
BSAY AGAIN
CCHECK
DREQUEST
75Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly?
ACORRECT
BTHAT IS RIGHT
CTHAT IS AFFIRMATIVE
DAFFIRM
76Which phrase shall be used for "AN ERROR HAS BEEN MADE IN THIS TRANSMISSION. THE CORRECT VERSION IS …"?
AQNH 1017, CORRECTION QNH 1016
BQNH 1017, NEGATIVE 1016
CQNH 1017, NEGATIVE I SAY AGAIN 1016
DQNH 1017, NEGATIVE QNH 1016
77Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required?
ASAY AGAIN
BREPEAT YOUR MESSAGE
CWHAT WAS YOUR MESSAGE
DREPEAT YOUR LAST TRANSMISSION
78Which phrase shall be used for "CONSIDER THAT TRANSMISSION AS NOT SEND"?
ADISREGARD
BCANCEL MY LAST MESSAGE
CFORGET IT
DMY LAST TRANSMISSION IS CANCELLED
79Which phrase shall be used for "I UNDERSTAND YOUR MESSAGE AND WILL COMPLY WITH IT"?
AWILCO
BROGER
COK, WILL DO IT
DWILL COMPLY WITH YOUR INSTRUCTION
80Which phrase shall be used for "YES"?
AAFFIRM
BYES
CAFFIRMATIVE
DROGER
81The phrase "MONITOR" means:
AListen out on (frequency)
BWait and I will call you
CExamine a system or procedure
DEstablish radio contact with…
82The instruction: "Fastair 345 STANDBY FOR TOWER ON 118.900" means?
AFastair 345 may be requested on frequency 118.900 when its intended that the Tower unit will initiate communications soon
BFastair 345 shall contact TOWER on 118.900
CFastair 345 may be requested on frequency 118.900 on which aerodrome data are being broadcast
DFastair 345 shall standby on the current frequency
83Fastair 345 receives the instruction to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency 118.000. What is the correct confirmation by the pilot?
AFastair 345 contact 118.0
BChanging over Fastair 345
CChanging to ARRIVAL Fastair 345
DStephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 345
84Which phrase shall be used when a pilot is unable to comply with a clearance or instruction?
AUNABLE
BNEGATIVE INSTRUCTION
CIMPOSSIBLE TO MAKE IT
DDISREGARD
85Which phrase shall a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed approach procedure?
AGOING AROUND
BMISSED APPROACH
COVERSHOOTING
DPULLING UP
86An aircraft had initially been cleared to climb to FL 100. For separation purposes the aircraft has to be levelled off at FL80 for a few minutes. ATC will give this instruction by using the phrase:
ASTOP CLIMB AT FL 80
BMAINTAIN FL 80
CCLEARED FL 80
DLEVEL OFF AT FL 80
87Which phrase shall be used to instruct a pilot to set the transponder to mode A/C code 0410?
ASQUAWK 0410
BSQUAWK ALPHA 0410 AND CHARLIE
CSQUAWK MODE ALPHA CODE 0410 AND MODE CHARLIE
DSQUAWK ALPHA AND CHARLIE ON 0410
88The phrase "CANCELLING MY IFR FLIGHT" means:
AThe pilot changes from IFR to VFR
BThe pilot indicates that his landing is assured and he will not submit the landing time
CThe pilot closes his flight plan
DThe pilot continues VFR and closes his flight plan
89Which phrase shall be used by ATC if a position report over a compulsory reporting point is not required?
AOMIT POSITION REPORT OVER …. (fix)
BCANCEL POSITION REPORT OVER …. (fix)
CDO NOT REPORT OVER …. (fix)
DNO POSITION REPORT OVER …. (fix)
90The permission to taxi to the runway in use for departure will be phrased:
ATAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY ... VIA ….
BRUNWAY ... TAXI VIA …
CTAXI VIA ... TO RUNWAY …
DCLEARED TO RUNWAY … VIA …
91If a pilot may start climb/descent at his convenience, ATC will use the phrase:
AWHEN READY CLIMB/DESCEND TO FL …
BCLIMB/DESCEND TO FL ... AT YOUR CONVENIENCE
CCLIMB/DESCEND TO FL ... AT ANY TIME
DCLIMB/DESCEND TO FL …
92ATC will give a descent instruction by using the phrase:
ADESCEND TO FL …
BLEAVE TO FL ... FOR FL …
CCLEARED TO FL ...
DMAINTAIN FL ...
93The clearance to taxi to the take-off position will be phrased:
ALINE UP RUNWAY ….
BTAXI TO TAKE-OFF POSITION
CCONTINUE TO TAKE-OFF POSITION AND HOLD
DCLEARED INTO POSITION AND HOLD
94If requested by the control tower to report having crossed a runway, the pilot has to use the phrase:
ARUNWAY VACATED
BI AM CLEAR OF RUNWAY
CI AM BEYOND THE RUNWAY
DI HAVE LEFT THE RUNWAY
95In order to get a bearing, the ground station will request the pilot to ….
ATRANSMIT FOR DIRECTION FINDING
BSQUAWK IDENT
CREPORT BEARING
DTRANSMIT FOR BEARING
96A pilot will be instructed to reselect the assigned transponder code A 6620 with the following phrase:
ARESET SQUAWK 6620
BSQUAWK AGAIN ALPHA 6620
CCONFIRM SQUAWKING ALPHA 6620
DSWITCH ON ALPHA 6620
97The prescribed phrase for obtaining permission to taxi to the runway for departure is:
AREQUEST TAXI
BREQUEST TAXI CLEARANCE
CWHAT IS MY TAXI CLEARENCE
DREQUEST PERMISSION TO TAXI
98ATC will give a climb instruction by using the phrase:
ACLIMB TO FL ….
BMAINTAIN FL ….
CLEAVE FL …. FOR FL ….
DCLEARED TO FL ….
99A pilot intending to close his flight plan shall use the phrase:
AREQUEST TO CLOSE MY FLIGHT PLAN
BREQUEST TO CANCEL IFR
CWILL CONTINTUE VFR
DWILL CONTINUE VMC
100If a transponder does not transmit on mode C as expected, ATC will instruct the pilot to switch on mode C by using the phrase:
ASQUAWK CHARLIE
BSQUAWK ALTIMETER
CSQUAWK PRESSURE ALTITUDE
DTRANSMIT ON MODE CHARLIE
101The advice by a radar controller "TRAFFIC THREE O‘CLOCK" means that the position of the mentioned traffic is ...
Aon the right side
Bon the left side
Cseparated by three miles
Dthree miles ahead
102What is the correct procedure for the pilot to change from IFR-flight to VFR-flight?
AContact ATC and cancel IFR
BA change from IFR to VFR is not possible
CContact ATC and request clearance to proceed in accordance with the visual flight rules
DContact ATC and request to close the flight plan
103The phrase "CLEARENCE EXPIRES AT 1025" means?
AThe clearance is void if the aircraft is not airborne until or at 1025
BThe clearance is void if the aircraft departs before 1025
CThe pilot shall start engines not later than 1025
DThe pilot shall stand by and ask for clearance again at 1025
104When shall the phrase "TAKE-OFF" be used by a pilot?
ATo acknowledge take-off clearance
BNever, it is used only by the control tower
COnly when the aircraft has already moved onto the active runway
DTo inform TOWER when ready for departure
105How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off?
AREADY FOR DEPARTURE or READY
BREADY FOR TAKE-OFF
CREADY TO LINE-UP
DREADY TO GO
106How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off manoeuvre?
ASTOPPING
BABANDONING TAKE-OFF
CABORTING TAKE-OFF
DCANCELLING TAKE-OFF
107How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to perform a missed approach?
AGOING AROUND
BOVERSHOOTING
CPULLING UP
DWILL MAKE ANOTHER APPROACH
108The phrase "GO AROUND" means?
ACarry out a missed approach
BMake a 360° turn
CProceed with your message
DOvertake the aircraft ahead
109The phrase "ORBIT RIGHT" means?
AMake 360° turns to the right
BTurn right to avoid other traffic
CRight-hand circuits are in use
DLeave the runway to the right
110The phrase "VACATE RUNWAY IMMEDIATELY" means:
AClear the runway immediately
BGive way to aircraft from the left
CHold position on the left side of the runway
DTurn left to leave the runway
111What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf has been received?
AINFORMATION GOLF
BWE HAVE THE INFORMATION
CWE HAVE THE ATIS GOLF
DWEATHER GOLF RECEIVED
112What is the correct way of transmitting frequency 120.375 MHz?
AOne two zero decimal three seven five
BOne two zero decimal three seven
COne two zero three seven
DOne twenty decimal three seven
113Which elements of instructions or information shall be read back?
AClearances, taxi instructions, runway-in-use, QNH, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and speed instructions, frequency in the case of frequency change
BRunway in use, ground visibility, dew point, take-off clearance, frequency in the case of frequency changes
CClearances, wind direction/speed, heading instructions, QNH, frequency in the case of frequency changes
DInstructions concerning heading, flight level, speed, altimeter setting, flight visibility, wind direction, take-off clearance and frequency in the case of frequency changes
114Shall an ATC route clearance be read back?
AYes
BNo, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (e.g. Standard Instrument Departure Route/SID)
CNo, if the communication channel is overloaded
DNo, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is likely to arise
115An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct phraseology to indicate it will follow this instruction?
AHOLDING SHORT
BROGER
CWILL STOP BEFORE
DWILCO
116Cherokee XYABC receives the following instruction: "XBC climb straight ahead until to altitude 2500 feet before turning right, wind 270 / 6 knots, Runway 22, cleared for take-off". What is the correct read back?
AXBC CLIMB STRAIGHT AHEAD TO ALTITUDE 2500 FEET, THEN TURN RIGHT, RUNWAY 22, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF
BWILCO, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF, XBC
CSTRAIGHT AHEAD 2500 FEET RIGHT TURN, WIND WEST 6 KNOTS, CLEARED FOR TAKE-OFF, XBC
DRIGHT TURN AFTER 2500, ROGER, XBC
117The phrase "SQUAWK 1234" means?
ASwitch transponder to Mode/Code 1234
BGive a short count for DF (direction finder)
CStandby on frequency 123.4 MHz
DMake a test transmission on 123.4 MHz
118RADAR informs aircraft XYABC: "XBC IDENTIFIED". What does this mean?
ARadar identification has been achieved
BXBC is not visible on the radar screen
CXBC should operate the IDENT-button
DXBC should perform an identification turn
119RADAR instructs aircraft XYABC: "XBC SQUAWK IDENT". What does this mean?
AXBC shall operate the IDENT-button (operation of the SPI feature)
BRadar identification has been achieved by correlating an observed radar blip with aircraft XY-ABC
CX-BC should perform an identification turn of at least 20 degrees
DX-BC shall reselect his assigned mode and code
120RADAR instructs aircraft XYABC: "XBC SQUAWK STANDBY". What does this mean?
AXBC is requested to select the standby feature on the transponder
BXBC is requested to standby for radar vectors
CXBC is requested to standby as the radar controller is busy
DXBC is requested to standby on the frequency
121RADAR instructs aircraft XYABC: "X BC RESET SQUAWK 1015". What does this mean?
AXBC is requested to reselect SSR code 1015
BXBC is requested to set new code 1015
CXBC has been identified by SSR code 1015
DXBC has been identified at 10:15 (UTC)
122A pilot of an IFR flight has been instructed to establish radio contact with another ATC unit during climb. On initial contact he has to transmit the following data:
ACall sign, present and cleared level
BCall sign and present level
CCall sign and estimated time over the next compulsory reporting point
DCall sign only
123To establish radio contact with "MÜNCHEN GROUND" the pilot of DIBEL shall transmit the following call:
AMÜNCHEN GROUND DIBEL
BDIBEL, MÜNCHEN GROUND OVER
CMÜNCHEN GROUND DIBEL GO AHEAD
DMÜNCHEN GROUND THIS IS DIBEL
124A radio station in the aeronautical mobile service may simultaneously call several stations. This call is named:
AMULTIPLE CALL
BGENERAL CALL
CSIMULTANEOUS CALL
DURGENCY CALL
125During approach to an airport with parallel runways the pilot of an IFR flight has to transmit on initial contact, after changing frequency from approach control to aerodrome control, the radio call sign of his aircraft and …
Athe designation of the runway being approached
Bpassing the transition level
Ccleared altitude/flight level
Dthe type of instrument approach
126The pilot of an IFR flight has to transmit the following data on initial contact after changing frequency from approach control to aerodrome control:
ARadio call sign of the aircraft only
BAircraft call sign and cleared altitude/flight level
CAircraft call sign and present position
DAircraft call sign and flight level or altitude
127When establishing radio contact, how shall aircraft XYABC call Stephenville TOWER?
AStephenville TOWER XYABC
BStephenville TOWER XBC
CStephenville XYABC
DTOWER XYABC
128Aircraft XYABC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.700. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction?
AXBC 118.7
BWILL CHANGE TO TOWER XBC
CXBC CHANGING OVER
DStephenville TOWER XBC
129Aircraft XYABC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.250, on which the aerodrome data are being broadcast. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction?
AXBC MONITORING 123.250
BWILL CONTACT 123.250 XBC
CXBC CHECKING 123.250
DCHANGING TO 123.250 XBC
130Aircraft XYABC is making a radio check with Stephenville TOWER on frequency 118.700. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission?
AStephenville TOWER XYABC HOW DO READ
BStephenville TOWER XYABC PRE-FLIGHT CHECK
CStephenville TOWER XYABC FREQUENCY CHECK
DStephenville TOWER XYABC SIGNAL CHECK
131On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 3" mean?
AReadable but with difficulty
BNo problem to understand
CUnreadable
DLoud and clear
132On the readability scale what does "READABILITY 5" mean?
APerfectly readable
BUnreadable
CReadable but with difficulty
DProblem to understand
133A compulsory reporting point is a defined location where a position report must be made ...
Ain any case
Bon request of ATC
Cin IMC only
Din VMC only
134A non-compulsory reporting point is a defined location where a position report must be made ...
Aon request of ATC
Bin VMC
Cin IMC
Din any case
135Which elements of information should an abbreviated position report during an IFR flight always contain?
ARadio call sign, position, time over
BRadio call sign, position, time over, level
CRadio call sign, position, level
DRadio call sign, position, next position
136What shall be the pilot‘s read back for: "CLIMB TO FL 280"?
AClimbing to flight level two eight zero
BClimbing flight level two eight zero
CClimbing to two eighty
DClimbing two eight zero
137What shall the pilot‘s read back be for: "CLIMB TO ALTITUDE 2500 feet"?
AClimbing to altitude two thousand five hundred feet
BUp two thousand five hundred
CClimbing altitude two thousand five hundred feet
DClimbing to two point five
138ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct read back by the pilot?
AFastair 345 leaving flight level 100 descending to flight level 80
BFastair 345 leaving 100 to 80
CDescending to 80, Fastair 345
DDown to flight level 80, Fastair 345
139Runway visual range (RVR) is included in the weather report when the visibility is …
Aless than 1500 m
B1000 ft or less
Cless than 1000 m
D1500 ft or less
140A pilot of an IFR flight shall inform the ATC unit competent for approaches and departures that he has received ATIS ...
Aupon initial contact
Bif deemed necessary
Cif the control zone is IMC
Don request only
141When the term "SCATTERED (SCT)" is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological conditions, the cloud amount is ...
A3 to 4 oktas
B5 to 7 oktas
CNO SIGNIFICANT CLOUDS
D8 oktas
142When the term "BROKEN (BKN)" is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological conditions, the cloud amount is …
A5 to 7 oktas
B1 to 4 oktas
CNO SIGNIFICANT CLOUDS
D8 oktas
143When the term "OVERCAST (OVC)" is used in radiotelephony in connection with meteorological conditions, the cloud amount is …
A8 oktas
B5 to 7 oktas
C3 to 4 oktas
D1 to 2 oktas
144When the term "CAVOK" is used in a routine meteorological report (METAR), the values of visibility and clouds are:
AVisibility 10 km or more, no cloud below 5000 ft AGL
BVisibility more than 8 km, no cloud below 3000 ft AGL
CVisibility more than 5000 m, no cloud below 1500 m AGL
DVisibility 10 km or more, no cloud below 1500 ft AGL
145In what units of measurement is the visibility in a routine meteorological report (METAR) expressed in plain language?
ALess than 5 km in metres, above in kilometres
BIn feet and nautical miles
CIn nautical miles only
DUp to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres
146What is the correct way of expressing visibility in plain language (in METAR)?
AVisibility 1200 metres
BVisibility 1200 feet
CVisibility 1.2 kilometres
DVisibility 1.2 nautical miles
147When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC will use the following phrase:
ARVR RUNWAY 16, TOUCHDOWN ZONE, METRES, MID POINT, METRES, STOP END, METRES
BTHE VALUES OF THE TRANSMISSION ARE: …. METRES AND ... METRES
CRVR AT THE BEGINNING OF RUNWAY 16 IS ... METRES
DRVR RUNWAY 16, METRES DIAGONAL, METRES DIAGONAL METRES
148What does “RUNWAY CONDITION CODE 5” in a runway surface description mean?
ABraking action good
BBraking action medium
CBraking action poor
DBraking action not measurable
149What does “RUNWAY CONDITION CODE 1” in a runway surface description mean?
ABraking action poor
BBraking action medium
CBraking action unreliable
DBraking action good
150What does “RUNWAY CONDITION CODE 2” in a runway surface description mean?
ABraking action medium to poor
BBraking action medium
CBraking action poor
DBraking action unreliable
151If you are requested to "REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS", what does that mean?
AIndicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMC
BIndicate if visibility is sufficient for landing
CIndicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR
DIndicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperature
152An aeronautical station using the identification "VOLMET" in its call sign ...
Ais a broadcasting service for the transmission of aerodrome meteorological reports for airports
Bcan be called by an aircraft in flight to obtain flight information service
Cis an aeronautical station operated by an airport company
Dexecutes air traffic control service to enroute aircraft
153The weather report in an ATIS broadcast contains the term "CAVOK". This means that an arriving aircraft has to expect …
Ano cloud below 5000 ft AGL
Bless than 5/8 clouds below 5000 ft
Cthunderstorm
Dlight precipitation
154What is normally used for ATIS broadcast?
AVHF frequencies
BNDB frequencies
CDME voice channel
DVoice channel of an ILS
155How can routine meteorological reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained by aircraft in flight?
156Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOLMET?
ARoutine aerodrome meteorological reports for airports
BSPECI and TAF
CRunway reports
DSIGMET
157Distress is defined as ...
Aa condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
Ba condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance
Ca condition concerning the safety of some person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance
Da condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS-approach
158A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word "MAYDAY" means:
AThe aircraft is threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
BThe aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle
CThe aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure
DThe aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its route of flight
159An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony:
AMAYDAY, emitted preferably three times
BDETRESFA, emitted three times
CPAN PAN, emitted three times
DURGENCY, emitted three times
160The distress signal and the distress message shall be transmitted on ...
Athe frequency used or on the emergency frequency
Bthe regional guard frequency
Cthe FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned
Dthe emergency frequency in any case
161The frequency used for the first transmission of a "MAYDAY" call shall be …
Athe frequency currently in use or on the emergency frequency
Bany other international emergency frequency
Cany frequency at pilot‘s discretion
Dthe distress frequency 121.500 MHz
162The distress message shall contain the following data:
AAircraft call sign, nature of distress, intention of the pilot-in-command, kind of assistance required, present position, level and heading
BAircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport
CAircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level
DAircraft call sign, present position, assistance required
163Which of the following frequencies is an international emergency frequency?
A121.500 MHz
B122.500 MHz
C6500 KHz
D121.050 MHz
164The frequency 121.500 MHz is ...
Aan international emergency frequency
Ba regional VHF emergency frequency
Ca regional guard frequency
Da frequency for air-to-air communication
165An aircraft in distress situation shall squawk:
AA 7700
BA 7600
CA 7500
DA 6700
166An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the aeronautical station that …
Athe aircraft is in distress
Bthe aircraft‘s transceiver is unserviceable
Cthere is a very sick passenger on board
Dthe aircraft is being hijacked
167Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk an internationally prescribed mode/code?
AIn distress
BWhen following a SID
CWhen passing the transition level
DWhen flying within controlled airspace
168An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the aeronautical station that …
Athe aircraft is in distress
Bthe aircraft has radio communication failure
Cthe aircraft has been hijacked
Dhis aircraft is entering Class E airspacee
169Urgency is defined as ...
Aa condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance
Ba condition concerning the safety of some person on board or within sight and requiring immediate assistance
Ca condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an ILS-approach
Da condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
170A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words "PAN PAN", preferable spoken three times, means:
AThe aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle and does not requiring immediate assistance
BThe aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for immediate reclearance
CThe aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure
DThe aircraft is threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
171An urgency call shall be initiated by the radiotelephony urgency signal:
APAN PAN, preferable emitted three times
BMAYDAY, emitted three times
CALERFA, emitted three times
DURGENCY, emitted three times
172Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call?
AOn the frequency in use
BThe regional guard frequency
CAny frequency at pilot‘s discretion
DThe international emergency frequency
173The urgency message shall contain the following data:
AAircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, intention of the pilot-in-command, present position, level and heading, and any other useful information
BAircraft call sign, present position, level and heading, assistance required
CAircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, assistance required
DAircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, present position, level and heading
174What is the transponder code for radio communication failure?
175An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates:
Alt is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failure
BIt is diverting to the alternate aerodrome
Clt is about to make a forced landing
Dlt is requesting immediate level change
176An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on the designated frequency. What action is required by the pilot?
ATry to establish radio contact on another frequency published for the route of flight
BReturn to the airport of departure
CLand at the nearest airport without an ATC unit
DContinue the flight to the destination airport without any communication
177What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station which fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station?
ATry to establish radio contact with other aircraft or aeronautical stations
BDivert to the alternate airport
CLand at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight
DSquawk mode A code 7500
178A message preceded by the phrase "TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE" shall be transmitted …
Aon the frequency presently in use
Bon the regional guard frequency
Cto all available aeronautical stations
Don the international emergency frequency
179If all attempts of an aircraft station to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station fail, it shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase:
A"TRANSMITTING BLIND"
B"READ YOU ONE, READ YOU ONE"
C"PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN"
D"HOW DO YOU READ?"
180Blind transmission shall be made ...
Atwice on the designated frequency
Bonly once on the designated frequency
Cduring VFR flights only
Don the emergency frequency only
181When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase "TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE" during an enroute flight, the aircraft station shall also ...
Aadvise the time of its next intended transmission
Benter immediately base leg when approaching the airfield for landing
Cland at the nearest airfield/airport
Dreturn to the airport of departure
182Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk an internationally prescribed code?
AIn case of radio communication failure
BWhen approaching a prohibited area
CWhen flying over desert areas
DWhen entering bad weather areas
183Which aircraft shall, during radio communication failure, keep a watch for instructions issued by visual signals?
AAircraft forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodrome
BVFR flights above clouds
CAircraft entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled airport
DIFR flights when entering a CTR
184An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure the pilot shall ...
Aset the transponder to Mode A 7600 and maintain the last assigned speed and level or the minimum IFR cruising level for a period of 7 minutes
Bleave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace
Ccontinue the flight to destination aerodrome
Dsquawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome
185An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot is obliged to maintain his last assigned speed and level for a period of 7 minutes. When does this period commence?
AAt the time the last assigned level or minimum IFR cruising level is reached or when the transponder code is set to Mode A 7600, whichever is later
BAt the beginning of radio communication failure
CAfter noticing radio communication failure
DAt the last contact with ATC
186An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot is obliged to maintain his last assigned speed and level for a period of 7 minutes. What is the pilot supposed to do thereafter?
AAdjust level and speed in accordance with the filed flight plan
BProceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight rules
CExecute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome
DDivert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight
187An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot is obliged to maintain the last assigned speed and level for a period of 7 minutes. What is the pilot supposed to do if the minimum IFR cruising altitude is higher than the last assigned level?
AThe pilot shall climb to the minimum IFR cruising level
BIn any case maintain last assigned flight level
CHold over present position for 7 minutes than continue in accordance with the filed flight plan
DContinue immediately in accordance with the filed flight plan
188An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot shall commence descent over the designated navigational aid serving the destination airport (no EAT received):
ACommence descend over the IAF at or as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival according to the current flight plan
BAfter holding for 5 minutes in the holding pattern
CWithout any delay
DAfter 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged
189An IFR-flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure, the pilot shall land, if possible, within ...
A30 minutes after the estimated time of arrival or the last confirmed approach time, whichever is later
B30 minutes after noticing the radio failure
C15 minutes after vacating the transition layer
D20 minutes after leaving the last assigned and acknowledged level
190An IFR flight in VMC encountering radio communication failure the pilot shall ...
Aconduct his flight in accordance with the rules for encountering radio communication failure in VMC
Bmaintain the altitude last assigned by ATC for a period of 7 minutes, before proceeding to the nearest suitable aerodrome for landing
Cclimb or descend to the cruising level indicated in the flight plan
Dcontinue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case
191An IFR flight in IMC encountering radio communication failure while under radar vectors, the pilot shall ...
Asquawk 7600 and proceed in the most direct manner possible to rejoin the current flight plan route not later than the next significant point, taking into consideration the applicable minimum flight altitude
Bsquawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan
Csquawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way
Dsquawk 7600 and maintain present heading for the next 7 minutes and then return to the flight path in ac- cordance with the current flight plan
192In case of a SSR transponder failure occurring after departure of an IFR flight, the pilot shall …
Ainform the competent ATC unit immediately
Bland at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repair
Csquawk 7600
Dcontinue the flight in VMC
193In case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR-flight, the pilot shall ...
Aobtain prior permission by ATC to conduct the flight
Binform FIS for relay to AlS
Cinform ATC after departure
Dinsert under item 18 of the flight plan "TRANSPONDER UNSERVICEABLE"
194What is a pilot expected to do if he reaches the clearance limit with a functioning VHF radio?
AEnter the holding pattern and request further clearance
BProceed to the initial approach fix according to his current flight plan
CContinue VFR to destination or alternate aerodrome
DProceed to the initial approach fix on the shortest way
195ATC issues an EAT in any case if the anticipated delay is more than ...
A20 minutes
B30 minutes
C15 minutes
D10 minutes
196A pilot receives the clearance to hold over an enroute reporting point until a specified time. This time is called:
AHolding time
BEstimated overhead time
CEstimated time of arrival
DExpected approach time
197If a pilot has to hold over an initial approach fix ATC will issue an ...
Aexpected approach time, if the expected delay is more than 20 minutes
Bexact arrival time
Cestimated time of arrival
Destimated elapsed time
198Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile Service?
A117.975 - 137.000 MHz
B108.000 - 117.975 MHz
C11650 -13200 kHz
D1810 - 2850 kHz
199To which frequency band belong the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the Aeronautical Mobile Service?
AVery high frequency
BLow frequency
CMedium frequency
DVery low frequency
200Which channel spacing is used in the VHF band of aeronautical mobile service?
A25 kHz + 8.33 kHz
B100 kHz + 8.33 kHz
C100 kHz
D50 MHz
201What are the propagation characteristics of VHF?
APractically straight-line similar to light waves
BThe waves are reflected at the ionosphere at the height of about 100 km and reach the earth surface in the form of sky-waves
CSimilar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance
DThe waves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into valleys in a way that topographical obstacles have not influence
202Which phenomena can influence the reception quality of VHF?
ALevel of aircraft and topographical features
BDay-night effect
CIonosphere
DAtmospherics occurring particularly during thunderstorms
203Under which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of the TOWER frequency 118.200 MHz?
AAircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground station
BAircraft at low level but far away from the ground station
CAircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio shadow zone
DAircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill
204The ELBA / ELT transmits on the following frequencies an emergency signal
A121.500, 243.000 or 406.000 MHz
B243.000 MHz only
C119.200 MHz
D121.500 MHz only
205Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over flat terrain at flight level 100?
AApprox.120 NM
BApprox.300 NM
CApprox.12 NM
DApprox.30 NM
206The air traffic service is providing ...
Aair traffic control service
Baeronautical telecommunication service
Cair traffic information service
Dair traffic communication service
207Air traffic control is provided for ...
AIFR flights and aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes
Ball VFR flights above 5000 ft MSL
CVFR flights at night within airspace G
DVFR flights in the identification zone
208The air traffic control service comprises:
ATWR, APP, ACC
BAlS, FIC, TWR
CAPP, ACC, SAR
DTWR, FIC, APP
209Information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations are published as …
ANOTAM
BAIP supplement
CAIC
DNfL I
210A NOTAM is distributed by ...
Aa teletype message
Ban official gazette
Cno means, since it is of no interest to pilots
Dradio
211The collection of active NOTAM presented to the pilot by AIS is called:
APre-flight Information Bulletin
BNfL
CFlight plan
DCircular Information
212The Pre-flight Information Bulletins contain all valid ...
Aactive NOTAMs
Binternational regulations
Cmilitary activities within the next 24 hours
Dnational regulations
213Changes of instrument procedures are published by means of ...
AAIP Supplements or AIP Amendments
BNfL II
CAIC
Dalerting messages (ALR)
214Pilots have to obtain pre-flight information from AIS-C for ...
Aflights for which a flight plan has to be filed
Ball flights
Call flights operating during night
DIFR flights only
215What is the measurement unit for wind direction and horizontal speed (except for take-off and landing)?
ADegrees true and knots
BDegrees magnetic and kilometres
CDegrees magnetic and miles
DDegrees true and kilometres
216What is the measurement unit for wind direction and horizontal speed for take-off and landing?
ADegrees magnetic and knots
BDegrees magnetic and miles
CDegrees true and knots
DDegrees true and kilometres
217What is the meaning of the designator "A65" on an enroute chart?
AATS route A65
BAltitude 6500 ft
CLow Flying area six five
DDanger area number six five
218ATC must be informed on a change of the TAS by ...
A5% or more
B15% or more
C20% or more
D10% or more
219In order to conduct an IFR-flight "AT FL 250" the aircraft must be equipped with ...
Atwo functioning transceivers with 8.33 kHz channel spacing
Bone transceiver with 25 KHz channel spacing
Cone transceiver with 720 channels
Done transceiver with 25 KHz and one with at least 50 KHz channel spacing
220An IFR-flight without DME interrogator may be operated …
Aonly with a special permission
Bif the aircraft is equipped with VOR and ADF
Cbelow FL 100, but not to or from international airports
Dto and from international airports with RADAR control
221An IFR flight intending to conduct an instrument approach has to be equipped with LLZ-, GP- and Marker beacon receivers ...
Aduring ILS approach
Bduring SRE approach
Cduring NDB/DME approach
Din any case
222By what time at the latest prior to EOBT shall normally be filed a flight plan?
A1 hour
B3 hours
C0.5 hour
D2 hours
223A pilot intends to fly IFR via ATS route "G1" to the "ABC" VOR and thereafter VFR. What is the correct entry in his flight plan under item- "route"?
AG1 ABC VFR
BVFR ABC G1
CG1 N0120/ABC VFR
DN0120 VFR ABC G1
224A Pilot intends to fly VFR to the "XYZ" VOR and thereafter IFR. What is the correct entry in his flight plan under item "route"?
AXYZ/N0120F080 IFR
BVFR XYZ IFR
C0120/XYZFO8O IFR
DF080 XYZ IFR
225What is the correct entry in an IFR flight plan for a flight level change over Leipzig VOR (LEG)?
A…. A101 LEG/N0250F150 G98 ...
B.… A101 N0250/F150 LEG G98 ...
C…. A101 F150/N0250 LEG G98 ...
D…. A101 LEG/F150 G98 ...
226Which letter shall be used in the flight plan to indicate, that the flight commences in accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR?
227How many minutes after EOBT is the flight plan automatically cancelled by ATC, if start-up or taxi instructions have not been requested?
A60 minutes
B30 minutes
C120 minutes
D90 minutes
228An IFR training flight shall be marked in item 8 of the flight plan by using the letters:
229What is the meaning of the term "FLIGHT LEVEL"?
AA level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to 1013.2 hPa
BA pressure level based on regional QNH
CA level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to local QFE
DA level in the atmosphere for vertical separation which is determined by setting the altimeter to local QNH
230Except for take-off and landing the minimum safe height for IFR-flights is at least:
A1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
B500 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
C1500 ft above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
D1000 ft above the highest obstacle located within 5 km of the estimated position of the aircraft
231The IFR minimum on ATS routes is expressed in:
AAltitude and/or flight level
BFlight level only
CElevation
DHeight
232Within how many miles radius around a specified navigational aid does the minimum sector altitude provide 1000 ft obstacle clearance?
233Altitude information of route segments on German enroute charts indicate the …
Aminimum IFR cruising altitude
Bminimum safe height for IFR flights
Clower limit of the controlled airspace
Dminimum reception altitude for radio navigational aids
234What is the minimum vertical separation to other IFR flights above FL 290?
A1000 ft up to FL 410 thereafter 2000 ft
B2000 m
C1000 ft
D500 ft
235What is the minimum vertical separation to other IFR flights below FL 410?
A1000 ft
B2000 ft
C1000 m
D500 ft
236Prior to departure the pilot will be given enroute clearance including the departure route. The cruising altitude is normally not covered by the clearance. To which initial altitude has the pilot to climb after take - off?
ATo the initial altitude stated in the SID
BClimb so, as to leave airspace E as soon as possible
CThe initial altitude is on pilot‘s discretion
DTo the minimum safe height for IFR flights
237The transition level is determined on the basis of …
Atransition altitude and QNH
Btransition altitude and QFE
Ctransition height and QFE
Dtransition height and QNH
238The vertical dimension of the transition layer must be at least:
A1000 ft
B1500 ft
C2000 ft
D500 ft
239The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 1005 hPa. What is the transition level?
240The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 1015 hPa. What is the transition level?
241The published transition altitude is 5000 ft, the present QNH is 977 hPa. What is the transition level?
242An IFR flight at FL 100 approaches an aerodrome for landing. The QNH given is 1018 hPa, the transition altitude is 5000 ft. When shall the pilot change the altimeter setting to QNH? When ...
Apassing FL 60
Bleaving FL 100
Cpassing FL 70
Dpassing FL 50
243The pilot of an arriving IFR flight shall change altimeter setting from 1013.2 hPa to QNH during the descent …
Awhen passing the transition level
Bwhen passing the transition altitude
Cafter having passed the transition layer
Dwhen commencing descent
244The pilot of a departing IFR flight shall change altimeter setting from QNH to standard altimeter setting 1013.2 hPa when …
Apassing transition altitude
Bpassing transition
Cleaving the transition layer
Dreaching transition level
245Name the speed limitation applicable within airspace C for an IFR-flight:
ANo speed limitation
BMaximum 250 kt IAS
CMaximum 250 kt TAS
D250 kt lAS below FL 100
246Which are the lower and upper limits of the German UIR:
AFL 245 - unlimited
BFL 245 – FL 460
CGND - unlimited
DGND - FL 245
247Flights within airspace E will be separated as follows:
AIFR from IFR
BIFR from VFR
CAll aircraft
DVFR from IFR
248Which kind of flights are not permitted within airspace G?
AIFR outside of RMZ
BGlider flights
CMilitary exercise flights
DVFR
249Flights below FL 100 within airspace D and E are not permitted to exceed an indicated airspeed of ...
A250 kt except aircraft, which have to be operated at a higher airspeed because of their specific performance characteristics
B150 kt
C300 kt
D200 kt
250A pilot intends to cancel his IFR flight at the minimum IFR cruising altitude in airspace E below FL 100, descend below controlled airspace and continue VFR. Which are the required weather minima?
AFlight visibility at least 5 km, distance from cloud 1000 ft vertically, 1500 m horizontally
BFlight visibility at least 3 km, distance from cloud 1000 ft vertically, 1500 m horizontally
CFlight visibility at least 8 km, horizontal distance from clouds 1500 m
DFlight visibility at least 8 km, clear of cloud
251A pilot departing on a VFR flight (Z - flight plan) and intending to change flight rules to IFR at the minimum IFR cruising altitude in airspace E below FL 100, has to observe the following minimum values for flight visibility / distance from clouds:
A5 km flight visibility, distance from cloud 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically
B3 km flight visibility, distance from cloud 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically
C1.5 km flight visibility, distance from cloud 1500 m horizontally, 1000 ft vertically
D1.5 km flight visibility, clear of cloud
252A pilot on an IFR flight (Y - flight plan) intends to change flight rules to VFR at the minimum IFR cruising level. Until leaving the controlled airspace E below FL 100 he has to observe the following minimum values for f light visibility:
253During a flight with an intended change of flight rules the VFR part of this flight shall generally be conducted in such a way, that ...
Ain airspace E the pilot, has a flight visibility of at least 5 km and the aircraft maintains a horizontal distance from clouds of at least 1500 m and a vertical distance of at least 1000 ft
Bin airspace E the pilot has a flight visibility of at least 8 km and the aircraft maintains a horizontal distance from clouds of at least 1500 m and a vertical distance of at least 1000 ft
Cin airspace E the pilot has a flight visibility of at least 8 km and the aircraft remains clear of cloud
Din airspace E the pilot has a flight visibility of at least 5 km, the aircraft remains clear of cloud and visual contact to the ground is granted
254The start-up clearance shall not be requested before it has been ascertained that the aircraft can start the engine after the clearance has been issued ...
Awithin 5 minutes
Bwithin 10 minutes
Cimmediately
Dwithin 20 minutes
255For the regulation of taxiing aircraft under all-weather conditions, CAT II/III stop bars have been established ...
Afor the safety of traffic on taxiways and on runways
Bfor the safety of traffic on the runways
Cto ensure a fluent traffic on the apron
Dfor the safety of taxiing aircraft
256A pilot taxiing on an aerodrome under all-weather operations CAT II/III is approaching a stop bar, represented by red lights at 3 m intervals across the taxiway. When the lights are switched on, taxiing across the stop bar …
Ais not permitted
Bis permitted only, when no aircraft is in sight
Cis permitted as soon as a taxi instruction is received from the aircraft‘s owner
Dis permitted only for IFR departures
257When holding in front of a stop bar at a CAT II/III holding point during all-weather operations, a pilot receives a take-off clearance from TWR. The red lights of the stop bar remain switched on. The pilot must ...
Ainform the TWR that the light signals are not switched off and hold position until the stop bar is switched off
Bbe very careful during line-up and take-off, however follow the TWR instruction without delay
Cfollow the TWR instruction without arguing, because instructions via radiotelephony overrule light signals
Ddisregard the TWR instruction, hold position and wait for weather improvement, because neither take-off nor landing is permitted, as long as the stop bar is switched on
258The identification with SSR will be achieved by ...
Apressing the IDENT button
Btransmitting for DF
Cswitching the transponder to STBY
Dheading changes
259The height identification with SSR will be achieved by ...
Asquawking mode A/C or S
Bsquawking mode A/B
Csquawking LOW-HIGH-LOW
Dtransmitting for DF
260When switching the transponder to "STBY" …
Athe transponder is immediately available, if required
Bthe selected code is transmitting altitude information only
Cthe transponder is switched off completely
Dthe sensibility of the receiver is reduced
261If an aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to land within 5 minutes after the estimated landing time and communication cannot be established with the aircraft, ATC will ...
Aalert the search and rescue service
Btransmit an emergency message
Cwait for 5 minutes before taking further action
Dassume that the aircraft is diverting to the alternate aerodrome
262If an aircraft fails to land within 30 minutes of the estimated time of landing last notified to or estimated by air traffic services units, whichever is later, and communication cannot be established with the aircraft, ATC will ...
Adeclare the uncertainty phase
Btake no special action
Ctransmit an urgency message
Dwait another 30 minutes before taking action
263If an aircraft fails to arrive within 30 minutes after his ETA and ATC has no knowledge about its position, the following phase will be declared:
AUncertainty phase
BDistress phase
CEmergency phase
DAlert phase
264Which time will be issued by ATC, if an arriving aircraft on an IFR flight has to hold over the navigation aid serving as clearance limit, when holding of more than 20 minutes is expected? The …
Aexpected approach time (EAT)
Bestimated time of arrival (ETA)
Cestimated time enroute (ETE)
Destimated elapsed time (EET)
265The terminology associated with the standard holding pattern is as follows:
AFix, abeam fix, outbound, holding side, inbound
BDownwind, base leg, final
CInbound downwind, base outbound, long final
DHold downwind outbound, turn inbound holding fix
266The outbound timing in a holding pattern shall begin ...
Aover or abeam the fix, whichever is later
B10 seconds before reaching the fix
Cat the convenience of the pilot
Dafter having completed the turn over the fix
267What is the prescribed maximum indicated airspeed for an aircraft entering a holding pattern at FL 140 or below?
A230 kt
B240 kt
C265 kt
D220 kt
268What is the prescribed maximum indicated airspeed for an aircraft entering a holding pattern above FL 200?
A265 kt
B300 kt
C230 kt
D320 kt
269What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
A1 minute
B2 minutes
C1 minute and 30 seconds
D30 seconds
270A standard holding pattern at FL 150 or above is to be flown outbound:
A1 minute and 30 seconds
B2 minutes
C2 minutes and 30 seconds
D1 minute
271What is the advantage of a VORTAC, compared to a VOR, if the aircraft is equipped with respective receivers?
AThe airborne equipment indicates distance and direction in respect to the position of the VORTAC
BThe airborne equipment indicates direction and altitude/flight level
CThe airborne equipment indicates direction and IAS
DThe TO/FROM indication can be disregarded
272The DME receiver provides the pilot with information on …
Adistance
Bazimuth
Cweather
Dheight
273What is the identification of the MM?
ADots and dashes
BDashes
CContinuous wave
DDots
274The passage of the middle marker is indicated to the pilot by …
Aan amber (yellow) light
Ba red light
Ca purple (blue) light
Da white light
275Which is the carrier frequency of the outer marker?
A75 MHz
B100 MHz
C50 kHz
D25 kHz
276The passage of the outer marker is indicated to the pilot by ...
Aa purple (blue) light and an aural signal of 400 Hz
Ban amber (yellow) light
Ca 360°-needle-swing of the ADF indicator
Da white light and an aural signal of 3000 Hz
277The passage of a locator beacon (LO) is indicated to the pilot by ...
Aa 180°-needle-swing of the ADF indicator
Bthe change of the TO/FROM indicator
Cthe flashing of a red light and an aural signal
Dthe flashing of a purple light
278Name all parts of a standard instrument approach procedure:
AArrival route, initial approach, intermediate approach, final approach, missed approach
BInitial approach and final approach
CFinal approach and missed approach
DIntermediate approach, final approach and missed approach
279What are the criteria for the different aircraft categories during an instrument approach?
ASpeed at threshold based on 1.3 times stall-speed in the landing configuration at maximum certificated landing mass
BRange of speeds for initial approach
CMaximum speeds for missed approach
DRange of final approach speeds
280Which of the following approaches is a precision approach?
AILS approach
BVOR approach
CILS back-beam approach
DDME approach
281Which of the following approaches include a vertical guidance?
AILS approach
BNDB approach
CVOR approach
DLLZ approach
282Which of the following statements is correct?
AA precision approach has a vertical guidance
BA precision approach has no vertical guidance
CA LLZ approach has a vertical guidance
DA VOR approach has a vertical guidance
283Which component of the ILS provides the pilot with electronic course guidance?
ALocalizer
BMarker beacon
CApproach lighting system
DGlide path
284Which instrument approach procedure segment leads an aircraft to the extended final approach track?
AThe initial approach segment
BThe final approach segment
CThe intermediate approach segment
DThe STAR
285Which information gets a pilot from an air traffic controller during a SRE approach?
ACourse corrections in regard to runway centre line, distance information and altitude information
BOnly headings and altitude information
COnly altitudes and distance information
DRadar vectors only
286The OCA refers to:
AMSL
BThreshold
CField elevation
DQFE
287What is the Mode S Aircraft Identification?
ACall sign according to field 7 of the flight plan
BThe registration number of the aircraft
CThe name of the aircraft operating agency
DFlight number according to the airline time table
288What is the transition to final approach?
AAn overlay to radar vector pattern procedure
BA non-precision approach
CStandard IFR-approach
DA SRE approach
289What is necessary for the execution for a transition to final approach?
ADatabase
BILS
CADF
DVOR/DME
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